I could not find any meforshim that discuss this problem. Is there no commentator that is troubled by the exclusionary wording of Exodus 19:15?
Thursday, February 11, 2010
The Jewish Nation - For Men Only
In preparation for the revelation at Sinai, Moses tells the people not to go near (i.e., have relations with) women for three days. It is therefore obvious from the context that the people, הָעָם, the nation, excludes women. Does this suggest that when הָעָם is used in the passages immediately adjacent to v. 15, that women are also excluded? Did the women not prepare and wash their garments (v. 14)? Did only the men shudder (v. 16)? Did only the men stand at the foot of the mountain (v. 17)? Etcetera.
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7 comments:
You are mistaken. The Torah was given exclusively to women and 15 (אַל תִּגְּשׁוּ אֶל אִשָּׁה) was a warning to not covet your neighbor's husband. Ishah meaning "her husband".
No, they just had a women's section three mountains over that was "totally just as good" but where they couldn't see or hear anything.
No, on the contrary. The men were not allowed to approach a woman for three days, because that is the time it takes for the sperm to putrefy in the womb, thereby rendering the woman clean from tumat keri. and therefore fit to receive the Torah.
Read Rashi there.
Rashi explains the reason for a three-day (or possibly four-day) abstinence from sexual relations. He does not say anything about why the pasuk makes an obvious equivalence between הָעָם and only men. It could have said אֲנָשִׁים
The women are called Beis - Ha'am refers to the men - just like the ha'am served the golden calf and that was only the men but the women also received the torah.
So anytime the Torah uses "Ha'am" it is referring to men only??
I think not.
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